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I'm always interested in new terms entering the American version of the English language, and this article contains one that is new to me. It calls to engage in casual sex "to sport f___." Here is the sentence in which it is used:
I’m sure there are a lot of guys who will be sweet and gentle with you in bed and really pay attention to your needs, but the guys you come out to sport f— probably won’t be among them.
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One thing the article doesn't mention, but sure as heck implies, is that there is an enormous amount of casual heterosexual sex happening without any corresponding explosion of HIV/AIDS cases. That being the case, it would appear that HIV transmission between non-IV drug using heterosexual partners in this society is nearly zero.
I seem to remember being told by official sources that everybody was equally at risk for HIV/AIDS, not just gay men and IV drug users. This is apparently untrue. I wonder, did the officials who put forward that misinformation believe it to be true? Or were we deliberately given politically correct but false information in order to get the wider society to support efforts to control HIV/AIDS?